Dating versions of the lords prayer
Instead of bowing to God, and being obedient to him, Jesus could bow to Satan, avoid the pain and suffering of the cross, and immediately become king of Satan’s rogue kingdom. But the very reason that the Son of God took on flesh and blood was “that through death he might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil” (Hebrews ).
When Jesus died on the cross, he took away our sins, satisfying the demands of God’s law, and he triumphed over Satan, disarming the power that he holds over people–the power of death, because sin leads to death (Colossians -15).
The name "Lord's prayer" attaches to it not because Jesus Christ used the prayer Himself (for to ask forgiveness of sin would have implied the acknowledgment of guilt) but because He taught it to His disciples.
Many points of interest are suggested by the history and employment of the Our Father.
Back to your question: If Jesus had bowed his knee to him, could Satan really have given “all the kingdoms of the world and their glory” (Matthew 4:8) to him?
If we take what we’ve learned so far, we can reframe the situation a bit.
Which then brought up another question: Does Satan need authority from God to do anything to the people and to the earth? Or as one lady said, Satan gets authority from God only when pertaining to Christians believers. The closest Satan comes to being an author is by twisting what God has done, and turning it into sin.
But Satan does not have to get permission from God when dealing with unbelievers? Let’s start here: This is probably the most detailed account of Satan’s rebellion in the Bible. He’s the author of lies.“All authority comes from God, and those in position of authority have been placed there by God” (Romans 13:1). Now, notice what Jesus told his disciples in Matthew 28: “All authority in heaven and earth has been given to…” who? Therefore, no authority that God has given has been given to Satan.
Hence it was then most commonly known as the Pater noster .
The version itself, which accords pretty closely with the translation in Tyndale's New Testament , no doubt owed its general acceptance to an ordinance of 1541 according to which "his Grace perceiving now the great diversity of the translations (of the Pater noster etc.) hath willed them all to be taken up, and instead of them hath caused an uniform translation of the said Pater noster, Ave, Creed, etc.